0 votes 0 votes Is Y' + Z' same as (YZ)' ? Please explain this concept of compliments..!! Gitika Babbar asked Jun 11, 2019 Gitika Babbar 627 views answer comment Share Follow See all 2 Comments See all 2 2 Comments reply Hirak commented Jun 11, 2019 reply Follow Share this should help.. https://circuitglobe.com/demorgans-theorem.html 1 votes 1 votes Gitika Babbar commented Jun 11, 2019 reply Follow Share Thanks 😊 1 votes 1 votes Please log in or register to add a comment.
3 votes 3 votes Yes they are the same. This is due to De Morgan's Law. Arkaprava answered Jun 11, 2019 Arkaprava comment Share Follow See all 0 reply Please log in or register to add a comment.
2 votes 2 votes Y Z Y' + Z' (YZ)' 0 0 (1 + 1) = 1 (0.0)' = (0)' = 1 0 1 (1 + 0) = 1 (0.1)' = (0)' = 1 1 0 (0 + 1) = 1 (1.0)' = (0)' = 1 1 1 (0 + 0) = 0 (1.1)' = (1)' = 0 The result is due to de Morgan's law, but you can confirm it for yourself using a truth table. pritishc answered Jun 11, 2019 pritishc comment Share Follow See all 2 Comments See all 2 2 Comments reply Gitika Babbar commented Jun 12, 2019 reply Follow Share Oh yeah ! thanks for the better idea 👍 0 votes 0 votes Gitika Babbar commented Jun 12, 2019 reply Follow Share Thanks for the idea 0 votes 0 votes Please log in or register to add a comment.
0 votes 0 votes Yes,this is true due to De'morgans law Shagun Singh answered Sep 18, 2019 Shagun Singh comment Share Follow See all 0 reply Please log in or register to add a comment.
0 votes 0 votes YES it is same. by applyind demorgans law. heisenberggg answered Apr 4, 2021 heisenberggg comment Share Follow See all 0 reply Please log in or register to add a comment.