1 votes 1 votes $\underset{x \to \infty}{\lim} \left( 1 + \dfrac{1}{x^2} \right) ^x$ equals $-1$ $0$ $1$ Does not exist Calculus isi2015-dcg calculus limits + – gatecse asked Sep 18, 2019 • recategorized Nov 14, 2019 by Lakshman Bhaiya gatecse 496 views answer comment Share Follow See 1 comment See all 1 1 comment reply `JEET commented Sep 23, 2019 reply Follow Share Is answer $1$?? 3 votes 3 votes Please log in or register to add a comment.
0 votes 0 votes Taking the log on both the sides. preeti0448 answered Feb 27, 2022 preeti0448 comment Share Follow See all 2 Comments See all 2 2 Comments reply `JEET commented Feb 27, 2022 reply Follow Share If $\mathrm x = 1$? 0 votes 0 votes preeti0448 commented Feb 28, 2022 reply Follow Share if we substitute x as 1/y;then as x tends to infinity y will tend to 0. I hope it’s clear. 0 votes 0 votes Please log in or register to add a comment.