0 votes 0 votes $\underset{x \to 0}{\lim} x \sin \left( \frac{1}{x} \right)$ equals $-1$ $0$ $1$ Does not exist Calculus isi2015-dcg calculus limits + – gatecse asked Sep 18, 2019 recategorized Nov 14, 2019 by Lakshman Bhaiya gatecse 309 views answer comment Share Follow See all 2 Comments See all 2 2 Comments reply `JEET commented Nov 14, 2019 reply Follow Share Is B the answer? 2 votes 2 votes Yash4444 commented Nov 19, 2019 reply Follow Share C is the answer i guess 0 votes 0 votes Please log in or register to add a comment.
0 votes 0 votes Sin(x) can range from [-1, 1], so whatever be the value of x, sin(1/x) belongs to this range i.e a fiinite value Now, x * sin(1/x) = x * finite value, where x->0 so it should be 0 only neeraj_bhatt answered Sep 7, 2020 neeraj_bhatt comment Share Follow See all 0 reply Please log in or register to add a comment.