0 votes 0 votes Let $f$ and $g$ be two differentiable functions such that $f’(x)\leq g’(x)$for all $x<1$ and $f’(x) \geq g’(x)$ for all $x>1$. Then if $f(1) \geq g(1)$, then $f(x) \geq g(x)$ for all $x$ if $f(1) \leq g(1)$, then $f(x) \leq g(x)$ for all $x$ $f(1) \leq g(1)$ $f(1) \geq g(1)$ Calculus isi2015-mma calculus differentiation + – Arjun asked Sep 23, 2019 • recategorized Nov 17, 2019 by Lakshman Bhaiya Arjun 426 views answer comment Share Follow See all 0 reply Please log in or register to add a comment.
0 votes 0 votes Answer: C ------------------------------------------------------- Let $f(x)=\frac{x^2}{2}$ and $g(x)=x$ which statisfies the hypothesis of the question. This gives $f(1)\le g(1)$ NastyBall answered Jun 20, 2021 NastyBall comment Share Follow See all 0 reply Please log in or register to add a comment.