2 votes 2 votes Given two DFA's $M1$ and $M2$. They are equivalent if $M1$ and $M2$ has the same number of states $M1$ and $M2$ accepts the same language i.e $L(M1)=L(M2)$ $M1$ and $M2$ has the same number of final states None of the above Theory of Computation nielit2016dec-scientistb-cs theory-of-computation finite-automata + – admin asked Mar 31, 2020 • retagged Oct 29, 2020 by Krithiga2101 admin 1.5k views answer comment Share Follow See all 3 Comments See all 3 3 Comments reply HiteshVaish commented Jun 21, 2020 reply Follow Share B option is correct 0 votes 0 votes Sanandan commented Sep 1, 2020 reply Follow Share option b is correct. 0 votes 0 votes Deepak Poonia commented Jul 17, 2023 i edited by Deepak Poonia Jul 22, 2023 reply Follow Share Similar question in NIELIT Again: https://gateoverflow.in/337233/nielit-2016-mar-scientist-c-section-c-32 0 votes 0 votes Please log in or register to add a comment.
Best answer 2 votes 2 votes A,C. Not true. Transition between the states maybe different and hence language accepted. We say that two DFAs A1 and A2 are equivalent iff L(A1) = L(A2). B is correct. Ref: https://www.cse.iitb.ac.in/~trivedi/courses/cs208-spring14/lec05.pdf smsubham answered Apr 1, 2020 • selected Apr 1, 2020 by Arjun smsubham comment Share Follow See all 0 reply Please log in or register to add a comment.
0 votes 0 votes Option B) is correct , Given two DFA’s then they are equal if both accepts the same language. Sanandan answered Sep 14, 2020 Sanandan comment Share Follow See all 0 reply Please log in or register to add a comment.