2 votes 2 votes Two finite state machines are said to be equivalent if they have same number of states have same number of edges have same number of states and edges recognize same set of tokens Theory of Computation nielit2016mar-scientistc theory-of-computation finite-automata + – admin asked Apr 2, 2020 • recategorized Oct 28, 2020 by Krithiga2101 admin 871 views answer comment Share Follow See 1 comment See all 1 1 comment reply vg653 commented Apr 2, 2020 reply Follow Share if they recognize same set of tokens. 0 votes 0 votes Please log in or register to add a comment.
1 votes 1 votes so option A,B,C are false and the definition of equivalent finite machines is that they accept same language. so option D is correct. Ram13may answered Jan 3, 2021 Ram13may comment Share Follow See 1 comment See all 1 1 comment reply deepaksing commented Jun 25, 2021 reply Follow Share Option D would be correct. So if we check (option A). its saying that if two finite state machines have same number of states then both the finite state machines are equivalent. But its wrong. so for this lets take two finite state machines L1 = {a*} → L1 have one state L2 = {b*} → L2 also have one state but L1 is not equal to L2 . So option A is wrong. Similarly with the same number of edges we cant guarantee that both the finite machines would be same. Thus Option B and C are also wrong 0 votes 0 votes Please log in or register to add a comment.