799 views

1 Answer

Best answer
3 votes
3 votes

(p-1qp)n=p-1qn

To understand why is so happening,

lets take value of n = 2  

(p-1qp)2           =(p-1qp) (p-1qp)                   

p-1 q p p-1 q p             ∵  ( AB)C = A ( BC)

= p-1 q In q p                 ∵   AA-1 =  In

= p-1 q  q p  

=  p-1 q2 

Similarly you can check and assure yourself with other values of n.

So (p-1qp)n=p-1qn

PS : One of the most important use of matrix diagonalization is calculating higher powers of a square matrix.

Ref : http://www.maths.lse.ac.uk/personal/martin/fme4a.pdf and https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Diagonalizable_matrix#An_application

selected by

Related questions

1 votes
1 votes
1 answer
1
samarpita asked May 9, 2022
9,426 views
Eigen Values of an orthogonal matrix will always be +1 and the modulus will also be always |1|? I have a doubt on this point .
2 votes
2 votes
1 answer
2
0 votes
0 votes
0 answers
3
0 votes
0 votes
0 answers
4