3 votes 3 votes Consider a prime number $p$ and a positive integer $a$ such that $p$ divides $a$. The remainder when $a^{p-1}$ is divided by $p$ is $1$ $0$ $p-1$ Cannot be determined Set Theory & Algebra go2025-dm-3 group-theory fermat-theorem + – gatecse asked Jul 5, 2020 gatecse 232 views answer comment Share Follow See all 0 reply Please log in or register to add a comment.
Best answer 2 votes 2 votes Since, $p$ divides $a,$ it must divide any power of $a$ also. So, the remainder will be $0.$ gatecse answered Jul 5, 2020 • selected Jul 25, 2020 by Lakshman Bhaiya gatecse comment Share Follow See all 0 reply Please log in or register to add a comment.