0 votes 0 votes The limit $$\underset{n\rightarrow \infty }{\lim}\:n^{2}\int_{0}^{1}\:\frac{1}{\left ( 1+x^{2} \right )^{n}}\:dx$$ is equal to $1$ $0$ $+\infty$ $1/2$ Calculus tifrmaths2019 limits + – soujanyareddy13 asked Aug 29, 2020 • edited Sep 22, 2020 by soujanyareddy13 soujanyareddy13 663 views answer comment Share Follow See 1 comment See all 1 1 comment reply mohdjameel2412 commented Feb 27, 2021 reply Follow Share https://drive.google.com/file/d/1dE7LOpGgP86oeP557codAy_2C4N-w_7b/view?usp=drivesdk 0 votes 0 votes Please log in or register to add a comment.