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True/False Question :

Let $v:\mathbb{R}\rightarrow \mathbb{R}^{2}$ be $C^{\infty }$ (i.e., has derivatives of all orders). Then there exists $t_{0}\in \left ( 0,1 \right )$ such that $v\left ( 1 \right )-v\left ( 0 \right )$ is a scalar multiple of $\frac{\mathrm{dv} }{\mathrm{dt} }\mid _{t=t_{0}}$.

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