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UGC NET CSE | December 2019 | Part 2 | Question: 59

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Consider the following statements:

$S_1 : \forall x P(x) \vee \forall x Q(x)$ and $\forall x (P(x) \vee Q(x))$ are not logically equivalent.

$S_2 : \exists x P(x) \wedge \exists x Q(x)$ and $\exists x (P(x) \wedge Q(x))$ are not logically equivalent

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. Only $S_1$
  2. Only $S_2$
  3. Both $S_1$ and $S_2$
  4. Neither $S_1$ nor $S_2$
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