I am quite confused in this . I have seen in many answers related to LR(k), that DCFL have one to one correspondence with LR(k) grammars. Means if a language is DCFL then it would definitely have a LR(k) grammar and if there is an LR(k) grammar then the language corresponding to that would be a DCFL. THIS statement conclude that LR(k) grammars cannot parse any ncfl.
So, how for some unambiguous ncfl there exists an LR(k) grammar??? Please someone can provide a correct argument regarding this.