in Calculus recategorized by
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1 vote
1 vote

Let f(x-y) = $\frac{f(x)}{f(y)}$ for all x,y $\epsilon$ R and f’(0) = p, f’(5) = q. Then the value of f’(-5) is

  1.  q
  2. -q
  3. $\frac{p}{q}$
  4. $\frac{p^2}{q}$
in Calculus recategorized by
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3 Comments

You can search the ISI questions which are already there using the tag search.

Anyways, https://www.toppr.com/ask/question/let-fxyfxfy-for-all-x-and-y-if-f52-and-f03then-f-5-is-equal/

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Almost similar to the above question.
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Answer is option D using the above method
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