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Let f(x-y) = $\frac{f(x)}{f(y)}$ for all x,y $\epsilon$ R and f’(0) = p, f’(5) = q. Then the value of f’(-5) is

- q
- -q
- $\frac{p}{q}$
- $\frac{p^2}{q}$

You can search the ISI questions which are already there using the tag search.

Anyways, https://www.toppr.com/ask/question/let-fxyfxfy-for-all-x-and-y-if-f52-and-f03then-f-5-is-equal/

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