1 votes 1 votes Let f(x-y) = $\frac{f(x)}{f(y)}$ for all x,y $\epsilon$ R and f’(0) = p, f’(5) = q. Then the value of f’(-5) is q -q $\frac{p}{q}$ $\frac{p^2}{q}$ Jeetu Bhaiya asked Feb 24, 2022 • recategorized Feb 27, 2022 by Jeetu Bhaiya Jeetu Bhaiya 344 views answer comment Share Follow See all 3 Comments See all 3 3 Comments reply `JEET commented Feb 27, 2022 reply Follow Share You can search the ISI questions which are already there using the tag search. Anyways, https://www.toppr.com/ask/question/let-fxyfxfy-for-all-x-and-y-if-f52-and-f03then-f-5-is-equal/ 0 votes 0 votes `JEET commented Feb 27, 2022 reply Follow Share Almost similar to the above question. 0 votes 0 votes AngshukN commented May 3, 2022 reply Follow Share Answer is option D using the above method 0 votes 0 votes Please log in or register to add a comment.
