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We define a relation $\text{S}$ on a non-empty Set $\text{A}.$ The definition of relation $\text{S}$ is given in form of a first order logic formula below :
$$\forall x \forall y(\text{S}(x, y)\Leftrightarrow \neg \text{S}(y, x)) \wedge [ \forall x \exists y \text{S}(x, y)] \wedge \forall x \forall y \forall z(\text{S}(x, y) \wedge \text{S}(y, z) \Rightarrow \text{S}(x, z))$$
Note that for $x,y \in \text{A}, \text{S}(x,y)$ is true iff $x\text{S}y$ i.e. $\text{S}(x,y)$ is just another way of saying that $x$ is related to $y$ in relation $\text{S}.$

Which of the following is/are true?

  1. There is some finite set $\text{A}$ on which such relation $\text{S}$ can be defined.
  2. There is some infinite set $\text{A}$ on which such relation $\text{S}$ can be defined.
  3. There is no finite set $\text{A}$ on which such relation $\text{S}$ can be defined.
  4. There is no infinite set $\text{A}$ on which such relation $\text{S}$ can be defined.
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1 Answer

5 votes
5 votes

On a non-empty set $A,$ we define a relation $S.$

$∀x∀y(S(x,y)⇔¬S(y,x))$ means that for all pairs $(x,y) \in A \times A,$  $S(x,y)⇔¬S(y,x)$ must be true, which is NEVER possible to be true for any non-empty set $A$ because when $x,y$ refer to same element, $S(x,y)⇔¬S(y,x)$ will be False.

Hence, there is NO finite Or infinite model for the given expression, Or we can say that on any non-empty set $A,$ we cannot define any such relation $S.$

Hence, answer is C,D.


In the same question, if we have the following definition of relation $S:$

 

$∀x∀y(S(x,y) \rightarrow ¬S(y,x))$

$[∀x∃yS(x,y)]$

$∀x∀y∀z(S(x,y)∧S(y,z)⇒S(x,z))$

Now, it becomes satisfiable but has no finite model.

Similar question and my explanation you can find here: GATE CSE 1991 | Question: 15,b Deepak Poonia Explanation

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