3 votes 3 votes If $f(x)=e^{x} g(x), g(0)=2$ and $g^{\prime}(0)=1$, then $f^{\prime}(0)$ is $1$ $3$ $2$ $0$ Calculus goclasses2024-calculus-1 goclasses calculus differentiation maxima-minima 2-marks + – GO Classes asked Aug 28, 2022 • edited Apr 29, 2023 by Lakshman Bhaiya GO Classes 386 views answer comment Share Follow See all 0 reply Please log in or register to add a comment.
3 votes 3 votes $$ \begin{aligned} &\text { We have, } f(x)=e^{x} g(x) \\ &\Rightarrow f^{\prime}(x)=e^{x} g(x)+e^{x} g^{\prime}(x) \\ &\Rightarrow f^{\prime}(0)=e^{0} g(0)+e^{0} g^{\prime}(0)=2+1=3. \end{aligned} $$ GO Classes answered Aug 28, 2022 GO Classes comment Share Follow See all 0 reply Please log in or register to add a comment.
0 votes 0 votes Simply Apply the Product rule here. (UV)' = U' V + V' U Take U as ex And V as g(x) Ans is B SarthakShastri answered Mar 26 SarthakShastri comment Share Follow See all 0 reply Please log in or register to add a comment.