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Consider a $3 \ \text{GHz}$ (gigahertz) processor with a three stage pipeline and stage latencies $\large\tau_1,\tau_2$ and $\large\tau_3$ such that $\large\tau_1 =\dfrac{3 \tau_2}{4}=2\tau_3$. If the longest pipeline stage is split into two pipeline stages of equal latency , the new frequency is __________ $\text{GHz}$, ignoring delays in the pipeline registers.
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We can also find the t1, t2 and t3 and then find the new stages and their cycle time and then finally new frequency.

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it has 3 pipeline stage and processor has 3 GHz.

now the time period of clock =1/3 ns.

now say stage latency T3 =x

so T1=2x

T2= 8x/3.

now the delay is non uniform so we choose the maximum for the processor clock to synchronize.

so 8x/3=1/3

x=1/8.

now T1=¼ ns

T2 =1/3 ns

T3=1/8 ns

now according to question T2 is maximum so it spilt in two equal part .

T1=¼ ns

T2=1/6 ns

T3=1/6 ns

T4=1/8 ns

now in these new pipeline system T1 has maximum time period so it is chosen to be new processor clock.

clock frequency =1/ time period =1/0.25 =4 GHz
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