1 votes 1 votes Every cfg may not have equivalent pda T/F Theory of Computation made-easy-test-series theory-of-computation pushdown-automata + – Sourabh Kumar asked Apr 22, 2016 • edited Mar 5, 2019 by akash.dinkar12 Sourabh Kumar 1.2k views answer comment Share Follow See all 3 Comments See all 3 3 Comments reply shivanisrivarshini commented Apr 22, 2016 reply Follow Share whats the question ?????? 0 votes 0 votes Sourabh Kumar commented Apr 22, 2016 reply Follow Share So sorry eveyone 0 votes 0 votes ManojK commented Apr 23, 2016 reply Follow Share false 0 votes 0 votes Please log in or register to add a comment.
2 votes 2 votes For every CFG there is an equivalent PDA. For any CFG there exists a PDA. L(M)=L(G). For any PDA there exists a CFG L(G) = L(M). ManojK answered Apr 23, 2016 ManojK comment Share Follow See all 5 Comments See all 5 5 Comments reply Show 2 previous comments Dexter commented Apr 23, 2016 reply Follow Share yeah ! 0 votes 0 votes ManojK commented Apr 23, 2016 reply Follow Share @DEXTER is there anything wrong 0 votes 0 votes Dexter commented Apr 23, 2016 reply Follow Share arey No No i just have a habit f using excalmation and smiley . dont mind :) You are correct (Y) 1 votes 1 votes Please log in or register to add a comment.
0 votes 0 votes yes every cfg will have its equivalent pda. its true. Arpit Tripathi answered Apr 23, 2016 Arpit Tripathi comment Share Follow See all 0 reply Please log in or register to add a comment.
0 votes 0 votes The statement is false, as either the CFG may be deterministic that will have non deterministic PDA or deterministic PDA else the grammar can be non deterministic that will have non deterministic PDA. Hence for every CFG there is equivalent PDA rish1602 answered Jul 9, 2021 rish1602 comment Share Follow See all 0 reply Please log in or register to add a comment.