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+37 votes
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Frames of $1000\text{ bits}$ are sent over a $10^6$ bps duplex link between two hosts. The propagation time is $25ms$. Frames are to be transmitted into this link to maximally pack them in transit (within the link).

Let $I$ be the minimum number of bits $(I)$ that will be required to represent the sequence numbers distinctly assuming that no time gap needs to be given between transmission of two frames.

Suppose that the sliding window protocol is used with the sender window size of $2^{I}$, where $I$ is the numbers of bits as mentioned earlier and acknowledgements are always piggy backed. After sending $2^I$ frames, what is the minimum time the sender will have to wait before starting transmission of the next frame? (Identify the closest choice ignoring the frame processing time)

  1. $16ms$
  2. $18ms$
  3. $20ms$
  4. $22ms$
asked in Computer Networks by Veteran (97.7k points)
edited by | 7.7k views
+10

In this question , RTT is calculated as :

RTT = Propagation time for frame + Transmission time for frame + Propagation time for ACK + Transmission time for ACK

Why ?

That is because in question it says 

After  sending 2I frames , what is the minimum time the sender will have to wait before starting transmission of the next frame? 

that means after the transmission time of those 2I frames , how much time it should wait to start transmitting again , which means we need that time until ACK arrives.

So, we just have to find the time when ACK arrives and  that's why RTT value counts Transmission time for ack here in this particular question.

0

@Arjun Veteran the no. of frames at max in the channel could be 24 not 25 i think 

0
Since propagation time is 25ms, but we are still sending 32 packets, assuming half duplex connection, clearly the receiver can start transmitting piggybacked acknowledgement, only after 32ms. The receiver has to acknowledge all the 32 packets it received, and thus it will need 32transmissiins and one propagation.

Therefore wont the wait time be imcreased to 32+25=57ms?
0
RTT value includes transmission time of acknowledgement so to get waiting time exclude transmission time from it
0
What will be the efficiency? 32/52 = 61 % ?! Can someone check this?

5 Answers

+72 votes
Best answer
Bandwidth won't be halved in full duplex. http://superuser.com/questions/335979/does-1-gbit-s-port-in-full-duplex-mean-1-gbit-s-send-and-1-gbit-s-receive

Propagation time is given as $25$ ms.
Bandwidth $= 10^6$ bps.
So, to fully utilize the channel, we must send $10^6$ bits into the channel in a second, which will be $1000$ frames per second as each frame is $1000$ bits. Now, since the propagation time is $25$ ms, to fully pack the link we need to send at least $1000 \ ^*25 \ ^* 110^{-3}= 25$ frames. So, we need $⌈log_2 \ 25⌉ = 5$ bits.

$I = 5$, so $2^I = 32$ frames are sent.

Now, we need to get RTT (which is the time between which a frame is sent and its ACK is received), to determine the waiting time.
Transmission time (for a frame of size $1000$ bits) $= 1000/10^6 = 1$ ms.
So, transmission time for $32$ frames $= 32$ ms.
RTT $=$ Propagation time for frame $+$ Transmission time for frame $+$ Propagation time for ACK $+$ Transmission time for ACK

$ = 25$ ms $+ 1$ ms $+ 25$ ms $+ 1$ ms (ACK is piggy backed and assuming frame size for piggy backing is also $1000$ bits)
$= 52$ ms
So, waiting time $= 52 - 32 = 20$ ms. (For the $32$ ms, the sender was transmitting and not waiting)
Correct Answer: $C$
answered by Veteran (414k points)
edited by
0
and if RTT is not defined we do not bother about first bit or last bit, we consider only packets.
+1
Round trip time(RTT) is the length of time it takes for a signal to be sent plus the length of time it takes for an acknowledgement of that signal to be received. This time therefore consists of the propagation times between the two point of signal.
0

Arjun I think it's worth mentioning that maximal window size is dependent upon transmission time.If it was less than 1 ms pipeline wouldn't have been fully utilized in transit.

+26

So, the sender will take 1ms time to place the first frame onto the link. This frame1 will take 25ms to reach the receiver. Assuming processing time to be negligible, the receiver starts transmitting ACK frame for frame 1. Since ACK are piggybacked, the same data frame is used for sending ACK so, in this case, $T_{ACK}=1\,ms$. This ACK will take another 25ms to reach the sender. Assuming processing time to be nil, total time elapsed from sending of frame 1 to receive its ACK=1+25+1+25=52ms.

Now, since the sender is sending all 32 frames without waiting for the acknowledgement ( means no gap between frames), the sender would be done sending all frames at 32ms.

So, at 52ms, the sender would start sending the next window of frames.

My sender has to wait= 52-32=20ms.

0
Nicely explained.
+1
Very nice Ayush
0
very nice explaination
0

@Ayush Upadhyaya

@Arjun sir,

If sender is sending for complete RTT * BW ..then waiting time will be zero right?

As till the ack comes sender continously trasmitting onto the link and that will be the CASE for 100% efficiency right ?

i.e RTT*BW  = Ws * Length of frame

here we considered in RTT(Tt +2TP) time we can send RTT*BW data   ..accordingly we have done things

-----------------------------------------------------------------

But my doubt is if again 3rd question was What is capacity of the link then wht should be answer RTT * BW or 2TP* BW ?

 

0

key here is- and acknowledgements are always piggy backed

0
Is this link half duplex ?
+12 votes

Given, propagation time =25 ms.

Time required to transmit 1 frame = 1000 bits (frame size)/ 106 bps(bandwidth) = 1 ms

To fully utilize the channel, we need to transmit frames for propagation time(25 ms), 25 frames.

therefore, minimum no. of bits required for numbering 25 frames is = log 2(25) = 5 bits.

We need to calculate minimum waiting time after sending 2 frames (32 frames) to initiate transmission of next frame, for that we need to understand for what time sender is in busy mode and for what time sender is in waiting mode.

Sender is in busy mode during transmission of all the 32 frames, that means, for 32 ms.

after transmission sender is in waiting mode which is

= ( time required to get the ack for 1st frame ) - ( time for which sender is busy)

= (1+25+1+25) - (32) = 20 ms.

1+25+1+25 = transmission time for 1st frame + propagation time for frame + transmission time for ack as it is piggy backed + propagation time for ack

 
answered by Junior (745 points)
+2
In question it is mentioned that the ACKs are piggybacked, so the RTT will be 50 instead of 52.

Hence the answer will be 50-32=18.
0
what about frame transmission time...??
0
So why sender will wait after 32 ms? He can go on sending more data without waiting any further?

Please clarify
+8 votes

This might help.

answered by (123 points)
0
But the question says that acknowledgement is piggybacked.
+2 votes
Since I = 5 from previous question

Window size of sender = 2^5 = 32

Scenario 1 :

For 1st frame out of these 32 frames :

Tx = 1 ms , Tp = 25 ms and so Tx(ack) = 1ms (duplex so receiver is also sending some data and putting ack of received frame in it .i.e. piggybacking) , Tp(ack) = 25 ms

We are getting ack for first frame in time = 1 + 25 + 1 + 25 = 52 ms

After this time this first frame can be discarded from window and window can be slided to transmit frame number 33.

Scenario 2 :

1 frame takes 1ms to transmit

since window size is 32 we can transmit 32 frames on cable without waiting for ack of first frame.

which takes 32*1ms = 32ms

After sending for 32ms sender will sit idle till ack of 1st frame is not received.

 

Conclusion :  52ms - 32ms = 20ms is the time for which sender is waiting before transmiting next frame (frame 33).
answered by Active (1.9k points)
+2 votes
Size of sliding window = 2^5 = 32
Transmission time for a frame = 1ms
Total time taken for 32 frames = 32ms
The sender cannot receive acknoledgement before round trip time which is 50ms
After sending 32 frames, the minimum time the sender will have to wait before starting transmission of the next frame = 50 – 32 = 18
1------------25------32(last frame)----------50(first ack receive) so waiting time is (50-32) = 18ms(using pipelining)
Please any one correct me if I am wrong..
answered by Active (2.3k points)
edited by
0
Refer first answer .

Hope it will make you clear.
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