edited by
8,155 views

6 Answers

1 votes
1 votes

 

We can clearly see that the graph of $y=x^{\frac{1}{x}}$ is a straight line parallel to x- axis giving a constant value of y =1 for all the values of x.

So when x$\rightarrow \infty$ then also we will get y=1.

$\therefore y= _{ x\rightarrow \infty }^{lim}x^{\frac{1}{x}} = 1$

Answer:

Related questions

21 votes
21 votes
2 answers
1
makhdoom ghaya asked Feb 13, 2015
7,567 views
Compute the value of:$$ \large \int \limits_{\frac{1}{\pi}}^{\frac{2}{\pi}}\frac{\cos(1/x)}{x^{2}}dx$$
32 votes
32 votes
6 answers
2
go_editor asked Feb 14, 2015
13,119 views
The value of $\displaystyle \lim_{x \rightarrow \infty} (1+x^2)^{e^{-x}}$ is$0$$\frac{1}{2}$$1$$\infty$
22 votes
22 votes
4 answers
3
Arjun asked Feb 14, 2017
6,031 views
The value of $\displaystyle \lim_{x\rightarrow 1} \frac{x^{7}-2x^{5}+1}{x^{3}-3x^{2}+2}$is $0$is $-1$is $1$does not exist
31 votes
31 votes
4 answers
4
go_editor asked Sep 28, 2014
8,049 views
The value of the integral given below is$$\int \limits_0^{\pi} \: x^2 \: \cos x\:dx$$$-2\pi$$\pi$$-\pi$$2\pi$