0 votes 0 votes closed with the note: incomplete Show, using resolution, that the following well-formed formula is valid for all interpretations: $\left(\forall x \forall y \left(f \left(x, y \right) \Leftarrow \neg y \left(y, x \right) = \left(\forall x \left(f \left(x, x \right)\right)$ Mathematical Logic gate1990 descriptive first-order-logic bad-question + – makhdoom ghaya asked Nov 26, 2016 closed Nov 26, 2016 by Arjun makhdoom ghaya 506 views comment Share Follow See all 0 reply Please log in or register to add a comment.