503 views
1 votes
1 votes
Which of the following statement/s representing One-to-One Function.

S1; ∀a∀b(f (a) = f (b) → a = b)

S2: ∀a∀b( a ≠ b→f (a) ≠ f (b) )

S3:  ∀a∀b(a = b → f (a) = f (b)),

S4:  ∀a∀b(f (a) ≠ f (b) → a ≠ b)

1 Answer

4 votes
4 votes

From the definition of one one function :

 The function f is injective(synonym of one-one) if and only if for all a and b in A, if f(a) = f(b), then a = b; that is, f(a) = f(b) implies a = b.  Equivalently, if a ≠ b, then f(a) ≠ f(b).

So if we represent them in logic form , we get S1 is immediate logical translation of an statement..And since implication represented by S1 is true , so is its contrapositive which is represented by S2 ..

So S1 and S2 are valid logical propositions regarding one one functions..

Related questions

0 votes
0 votes
0 answers
1
0 votes
0 votes
0 answers
2
saumya mishra asked May 2, 2018
565 views
What is the domain of the function log(log(sinx))?
0 votes
0 votes
1 answer
3
saumya mishra asked May 2, 2018
1,130 views
Determine whether f is a function from the set of all bit strings to the set of integers if f(S) is the smallest integer i such that the ith bit of S is 1 and f(S)=0 when...
1 votes
1 votes
3 answers
4
rahul sharma 5 asked Jul 27, 2017
775 views
Following is the way of checking the one to one functionorCan i use bi implication in between these?If not,then why?