doubt

Question

Q which statement is false??

1.  A SQL query can have a ' having' clause without having containing group by clause.

           => i think its true

2. in SQL we can use aggregate function without using GROUP by clause

  ===> i think its true

but made easy given both of  false answer...so i am confused.....

Answer 1

Both statements are true.

You can use having without group by but it will be as good as where clause.

For second, reference:http://stackoverflow.com/questions/6467216/is-it-possible-to-use-aggregate-function-in-a-select-statment-without-using-grou

Comments

@akash i also same but made easy gives incorrect he sai that having clause without group by clause in oracle but not allowed in SQL.

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@hardesh

I am not aware of language specifics. But generally it can be done. Gate only asks universal questions or states otherwise...don't worry about that.

Answer 2

1 - Having canot be used without the group by clause the execution pattern is

from , where group by , having, order by, limit.

HAving is used to apply condition on grups created.

2-Specfically talking about sql., We can use the aggregate function without group by but many other impleentation of rdbms does not allow this. 2 statment is talking about about Mysql so second is true by sql standards