13 votes 13 votes A Boolean formula is said to be a $tautology$ if it evaluates to TRUE for all assignments to its variables. Which one of the following is NOT a tautology? $(( p \vee q) \wedge (r \vee s)) \Rightarrow (( p \wedge r) \vee q \vee s)$ $(( p \vee q ) \wedge ( r \vee s)) \Rightarrow (q \vee s)$ $(( p \vee q ) \wedge ( r \vee s)) \Rightarrow ( r \vee q \vee s)$ $(( p \vee q ) \wedge ( r \vee s)) \Rightarrow ( p \vee q \vee s)$ $(( p \vee q ) \wedge ( r \vee s)) \Rightarrow ( p \vee q)$ Mathematical Logic tifr2016 mathematical-logic propositional-logic + – go_editor asked Dec 28, 2016 • recategorized Nov 21, 2022 by Lakshman Bhaiya go_editor 2.2k views answer comment Share Follow See 1 comment See all 1 1 comment reply Abhisheksmile94 commented Dec 17, 2019 reply Follow Share Why not E . suppose p=q=1 and r=s=0 then p or q =1 and r or s =0 . 1 and 0 =0 but p or q =1 LHS = 0 and RHS = 1. 0 votes 0 votes Please log in or register to add a comment.
0 votes 0 votes in B) option if we try with value as p=1, r=1 , q=s=0; then LHS evaluates to 1 and RHS evaluates to 0 There ans is B. Punit Sharma answered Nov 15, 2018 Punit Sharma comment Share Follow See all 0 reply Please log in or register to add a comment.