@Digvijay Pandey sir
GO is always better than others
3rd Option : Given two grammar G1 and G2, whether L(G1) = L(G2)
is Undecidable. Because When nothing is mentioned about the type of the Grammar, It, by default, should be taken as A Valid Grammar i.e. Type 0 Grammar which itself covers All the Grammars.
So, Now the given problem is nothing but "Equivalence of two RE languages" Problem. Which is Undecidable.
Deepakk Poonia (Dee) thanks for reply but i am still not convinced ,can you please provide any reference for it.
Please Read my answer for this question :
And then let me know if doubt continues.