If c is non-negative but not infinite then : 1.f(n)=O(g(n)) 2.f(n)=⊖(g(n)) According to me : it is saying that c is non-negative and not infinite so if g(n) tends to zero then c will tend to infinite but it is given that it is not infinite therefore clearly g(n) should be larger than f(n) , so more precisely we can say f(n)=O(g(n)) ,plz correct me ,if I am wrong

answered
Jan 31, 2016
in Algorithms
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