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Best answer
91 91 votes

I will solve by two methods 

Method 1:

$y =\lim\limits_{n \to \infty}\left(1-\frac{1}{n}\right)^{2n}$

Taking log 

$\log y =\lim\limits_{n \to \infty} 2n \log \left(1-\frac{1}{n}\right)$

$ =\lim\limits_{n \to \infty} \dfrac{\log \left(1-\frac{1}{n}\right)}{\left(\frac{1}{2n}\right)}\quad ($converted this so as to have form $\left(\frac{0}{0}\right))$

Apply L' hospital rule

$\log y=\lim\limits_{n \to \infty} \dfrac{\left(\dfrac{1}{1-\frac{1}{n}}\right).\frac{1}{n^{2}}}{\left(\dfrac{-1}{2n^{2}}\right)}$

$\log y={-2}$

$y=e^{-2}.$


Method 2:

It takes $1$ to power infinity form  

$\lim\limits_{x \to \infty} f(x)^{g(x)}$

$=e^{\lim\limits_{x \to \infty} (f(x)-1)g(x)}$

where, $(f(x)-1)*g(x)=\frac{-1}{n}*{2n}={-2}.$

i.e., -2 constant.

so we get  final ans is $= e^{-2}.$

You can refer this link  for second method

http://www.vitutor.com/calculus/limits/one_infinity.html

Correct Answer: $B$

• edited by
6 6 votes

1infinity form is taken after applying limit 

so general formula for this type of form is elim x->infinty (f(x)-1)*g(x)   here in this question f(x) = (1-(1/n))  and g(x)=2n 

so by aplying above formula elim x->infinity {1-(1/n)-1}*2n =e-2

4 4 votes

formula ===> lim x-->∞ ( 1 -   n/x)x = e-n

 

limn---->∞ [   (1 - 1/n) n  ]2 

limn---->∞ ​​​​​​​[ e-1 ] 2

​​​​​​​[ e-2 ]

1 1 vote
$y=\lim_{n->\infty}(1-\frac{1}{n})^{2n}$

$\log y=\lim_{n->\infty}2n*\log(1-\frac{1}{n})$

let , $z=-\frac{1}{n}$

as $n->\infty$  , $z->0$

$\log y=(-2)\lim_{z->0}\frac{\log (1+z)}{z}$

as we know $\lim_{z->0}\frac{\log (1+z)}{z}=1$

$\log y=(-2)*1$

$y=e^{-2}$

correct answer (B)
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