31 votes 31 votes The statement $\left ( ¬p \right ) \Rightarrow \left ( ¬q \right )$ is logically equivalent to which of the statements below? $p \Rightarrow q$ $q \Rightarrow p$ $\left ( ¬q \right ) \vee p$ $\left ( ¬p \right ) \vee q$ I only I and IV only II only II and III only Mathematical Logic gatecse-2017-set1 mathematical-logic propositional-logic easy + – khushtak asked Feb 14, 2017 • retagged Jun 25, 2017 by Silpa khushtak 9.2k views answer comment Share Follow See all 0 reply Please log in or register to add a comment.
4 votes 4 votes Answer is (D) The main Concept is Contrapositive. P------>Q <=> ~Q --------> ~P (Implication =Contrapositive) Q ------>P <=> ~P -------->~Q (Converge = Inverse) Lakshman Bhaiya answered May 1, 2017 Lakshman Bhaiya comment Share Follow See all 0 reply Please log in or register to add a comment.
0 votes 0 votes option D, as 2 and 3 are Equvalent . and 1 is false and 1 and 4 are same so if 1 is false then both 1, 4 will false hence D Supriyo21 answered Sep 3, 2020 Supriyo21 comment Share Follow See all 0 reply Please log in or register to add a comment.
0 votes 0 votes Easy. p’ → q’ = p + q’ Simplify all the options, we’ll get p+q’ for option II and III himanshud2611 answered Mar 30, 2023 himanshud2611 comment Share Follow See all 0 reply Please log in or register to add a comment.
0 votes 0 votes Hope this helps! akash.romain answered Aug 25, 2023 akash.romain comment Share Follow See all 0 reply Please log in or register to add a comment.