2 votes 2 votes If f(n) = O(g(n)) then is it always true g(n) = (f(n)) ??? please explain. Algorithms asymptotic-notation + – mohit kumar 5 asked Oct 19, 2017 mohit kumar 5 370 views answer comment Share Follow See all 0 reply Please log in or register to add a comment.
1 votes 1 votes $f(n)=O(g(n))\Rightarrow f(n)=c \times g(n) \text{for some constant c}$ $\Rightarrow \frac{1}{c}\times f(n)\leq g(n)\Rightarrow g(n)=\Omega (f(n))$ sourav. answered Oct 19, 2017 • edited Oct 19, 2017 by sourav. sourav. comment Share Follow See all 2 Comments See all 2 2 Comments reply mohit kumar 5 commented Oct 19, 2017 reply Follow Share but if you c =1/2 in (2). it will satify 0 votes 0 votes sourav. commented Oct 19, 2017 reply Follow Share thank you mohit for pointing the mistake , corrected now 0 votes 0 votes Please log in or register to add a comment.