1,552 views
1 votes
1 votes

Let F(x, y) be the statement “x can fool y,” where the
domain consists of all people in the world. Use quantifiers
to express each of these statements.

(a) There is exactly one person whom everybody can fool.

(b) There is someone who can fool exactly one person
besides himself or herself.

2 Answers

Best answer
1 votes
1 votes

$F(x,y)$ : $x$ can fool $y$.

Domain : All People

There is exactly one person whom everybody can fool.

1. Using Uniqueness Quantifier ($\exists !$) :

$\exists ! x \forall y(F(y,x))$ : There is Exactly One Person $x$ such that All persons $y$ can fool $x$.

2. Using $\exists, \forall$ :

$\exists x \forall y(F(y,x) \wedge \forall z((z \neq x) \rightarrow \exists p(\sim F(p,z))))$ 

Interpretation : There exists some $x$ such that for all persons $y$, $y$ can fool $x$ and for all other persons $z$( $z \neq x$), there is some person $p$ who cannot fool $z$.  

Note that : "There exists some $x$ such that for all persons $y$, $y$ can fool $x$" will make sure that there is at least one $x$ whom everyone can fool. 

and "for all other persons $z$( $z \neq x$), there is some person $p$ who cannot fool $z$." will make sure that apart from $x$, there is No person whom everyone can fool.

Since we know that Every Implication statement is equivalent to its Contrapositive,  the above formula can also be written as the following :

$\exists x \forall y(F(y,x) \wedge \forall z((\forall p F(p,z) \rightarrow (z = x)))$ 

3. Another idea to find expression for "Exactly One" is as following :

Exactly One = At least One - At least Two (In logic, Minus can be expressed by ($∧,∼$)

$\exists x \forall y(F(y,x)) $ $\wedge$ $(\sim \exists x \exists y \forall z ((x \neq y) \wedge F(z,x) \wedge F(z,y)))$


 There is someone who can fool exactly one person  besides himself or herself.

Assuming the Question wants to say that Someone($x$) can fool exactly one other person($y$) and $X$ can not fool himself/herself. 

$\exists x \exists y((x \neq y) \wedge F(x,y) \wedge \forall z ((z \neq y) \rightarrow \sim F(x,z)))$

There is some $x$ and some $y$ such that $x \neq y$ and $x$ can fool $y$ and For all people $z$ other than $y$, $x$ cannot fool $z$. 

Note 1 : "There is some $x$ and some $y$ such that $x \neq y$ and $x$ can fool $y$" will make sure that there is someone($x$) who can fool someone($y$) other than himself/herself($x \neq y$ ).  and "and For all people $z$ other than $y$, $x$ cannot fool $z$. " will make sure that $x$ can not fool any other person $x$ other than $y$.

Note 2 : If some person $x$ can fool himself and exactly one other person $y$ then we can just slightly modify our formula :

 $\exists x \exists y((x \neq y) \wedge F(x,y) \wedge F(x,x) \wedge \forall z ((z \neq y,x) \rightarrow \sim F(x,z)))$


Refer here for more details on "Exactly one" type question : https://gateoverflow.in/219473/kenneth-rosen-ch-1-ex-1-5-qn-52?show=219480#a219480 

selected by
1 votes
1 votes
(A)There is exactly one person whom everybody can fool.

Everybody can fool a person y and for all person z, if all can fool this z, then this person z must be person y

$\forall x \exists y ( F(x,y) \land \forall z (F(x,z) \rightarrow (y=z)))$

(B)There is someone who can fool exactly one person besides himself or herself

means there exists a person x who can fool himself and for this we have a person y and x can fool y and for all persons z such that x can fool z, z must be either z or y.

$\exists x \exists y ( F(x,x) \land F(x,y)\land \forall z(F(x,z) \rightarrow (z=y \lor z=x)))$

Related questions