267 views

1 Answer

0 votes
0 votes
Language of LR(1) (set of all LR(1) grammars) is same as DCFL.

Language of LR(0) ⊂Language of LR(1) = Language of LR(2) = Language of LR(k), k > 0.

So the statement 1 is true and statement 2 is false.

Related questions

372
views
1 answers
0 votes
vishnu777 asked Nov 25, 2022
372 views
"Every Regular Grammar has a Right linear grammar and this is LL(1)"What is meaning of this statement exactly and does it hold always?My Assumptions:If a grammar is right...
518
views
2 answers
2 votes
s_dr_13 asked Jan 3, 2022
518 views
if a grammar is CLR(1) with no mergeable states, then it is LALR(1) ? I suppose it is “yes”, am I right?
395
views
1 answers
0 votes
2.2k
views
1 answers
0 votes
Hirak asked Jun 1, 2019
2,224 views
S → aSbS /bSaS / ϵS → aABb A→ c/ ϵ B → d/ ϵWhich of the following is LL1. Explain in details.