0 votes 0 votes The subsets $\left\{(x, y) \in \mathbb{R}^{2} \mid\left(y^{2}-x\right)\left(y^{2}-x-1\right)=0\right\}$ and $\left\{(x, y) \in \mathbb{R}^{2} \mid y^{2}-x^{2}=1\right\}$ of $\mathbb{R}^{2}$ (with the induced metric) are homeomorphic. Others tifrmaths2024 true-false + – admin asked Jan 19 • edited Jan 19 by makhdoom ghaya admin 61 views answer comment Share Follow See all 0 reply Please log in or register to add a comment.