10 votes 10 votes The number of polynomial function $f$ of degree $\geq$ 1 satisfying $f(x^{2})=(f(x))^{2}=f(f(x))$ for all real $x$, is $0$ $1$ $2$ infinitely many Quantitative Aptitude isi2017-mma general-aptitude quantitative-aptitude + – Tesla! asked Apr 24, 2018 • recategorized May 11, 2019 by akash.dinkar12 Tesla! 1.6k views answer comment Share Follow See all 5 Comments See all 5 5 Comments reply Show 2 previous comments Kushagra Chatterjee commented Apr 24, 2018 reply Follow Share Option B only one polynomial function. 0 votes 0 votes Tesla! commented Apr 24, 2018 reply Follow Share Explain 0 votes 0 votes Kushagra Chatterjee commented Apr 25, 2018 reply Follow Share Explained in the answer section. 0 votes 0 votes Please log in or register to add a comment.
1 votes 1 votes ANS:B(one polynomial) The only possible polynomial f(x) is (square of x) i.e;f(x)=x^2 Let f(x)=x^2 => f(x)^2=x^4 f(x^2)=(x^2)^2=x^4 f(f(x))=f(x^2)=x^4 Therefore f(x^2)=f(x)^2=f(f(x)) manisha07 answered Apr 25, 2018 manisha07 comment Share Follow See all 0 reply Please log in or register to add a comment.