1 votes 1 votes In tuple relational calculus $P1\to P2$ is equivalent to $\lnot P1 \lor P2$ $P1 \lor P2$ $P1 \land P2$ $P1 \land \lnot P2$ Databases nielit2017july-scientistb-it databases tuple-relational-calculus + – admin asked Mar 30, 2020 retagged Aug 23, 2020 by Lakshman Bhaiya admin 512 views answer comment Share Follow See all 0 reply Please log in or register to add a comment.
2 votes 2 votes P1 → P2 is same as ~ P1 v P2. So A is correct. smsubham answered Mar 30, 2020 smsubham comment Share Follow See all 0 reply Please log in or register to add a comment.