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CMI-2019-DataScience-B: 10

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Let $p(x)$ be a polynomial with integer coefficients. Let $n$ be a positive integer and suppse $a$ and $b$ are two integers such that $a \equiv b(\text{mod}\;n)$. Is it true that $p(a)\equiv p(b)(\text{mod}\;n)$? Justify your answer.

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