0 votes 0 votes Let $p(x)$ be a polynomial with integer coefficients. Let $n$ be a positive integer and suppse $a$ and $b$ are two integers such that $a \equiv b(\text{mod}\;n)$. Is it true that $p(a)\equiv p(b)(\text{mod}\;n)$? Justify your answer. Others cmi2019-datascience + – soujanyareddy13 asked Jan 29, 2021 • edited Feb 7, 2021 by soujanyareddy13 soujanyareddy13 122 views answer comment Share Follow See all 0 reply Please log in or register to add a comment.
0 votes 0 votes Answer: soujanyareddy13 answered May 8, 2021 soujanyareddy13 comment Share Follow See all 0 reply Please log in or register to add a comment.