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Let $\text{u}=\left[\begin{array}{l}1 \\ 2 \\ 3 \\ 4 \\ 5\end{array}\right]$, and let $\sigma_{1}, \sigma_{2}, \sigma_{3}, \sigma_{4}, \sigma_{5}$ be the singular values of the matrix $\text{M}=\text{u} \text{u}^{\text{T}}$ (where $\text{u}^{\text{T}}$ is the transpose of $\text{u}$ ). The value of $\sum_{i=1}^{5} \sigma_{i}$ is $\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_$
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Answer is simply the sum of the square of the elements of vector $u.$

So, $\Sigma_{i=1}^{5}\sigma_i = 1^2+2^2+3^2+4^2+5^2=55$

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Now, comes to most important thing here. Why ?

The reason is, in SVD, we write the equation as:

$uu^T = U \Lambda U^{-1}$

Where, $\Lambda = \Sigma\Sigma^{T}= diag(\sigma_1^2,\sigma_2^2,...)$

And $\sigma^2= eigen(uu^T)=eigen(u^Tu)$

Sum of eigen values of a matrix is the trace of that matrix.

So, Here, $eigen(u^Tu)=\Sigma_{i=1}^{5}u_i^2=1^2+2^2+3^2+4^2+5^2=55$

Or you can get the answer by finding the trace of matrix $uu^T$ 

Here, $u_i$ represents the elements of vector $u$ and "eigen" represents the eigen values and diag() represents a diagonal matrix with its elements as diagonals.

$\sigma$ is called the singular values.

$\textbf{Proof}:$

Suppose we have a matrix $A \in \mathbb{R}_r^{m \times n}$ where $r$ is the rank of the matrix $A$. It means row space of the matrix $A$ is $\mathbb{R}^n$ and the column space of the matrix $A$ is $\mathbb{R}^m$.

Now, suppose we have to map two orthonormal basis vectors of row space $v_1$ and $v_2$ to two orthonormal basis vectors of the column space $u_1$ and $u_2$. We can do it as:    

$Av_1=\sigma_1u_1$ and

$Av_2=\sigma_2u_2$

Suppose $v_1$ and $v_2$ forms the matrix $V$ and $u_1$ and $u_2$ forms a matrix $U.$ (You can simply generalize this idea to high order matrices)

We can write the above two equations as 

$AV=U\Sigma$

Where

Now, $AV=U\Sigma$ implies $AVV^T=U \Sigma V^T$

Since, $V$ is an orthonormal matrix, so, $V^T=V^{-1}$

$A=U \Sigma V^T$

This is the SVD.

Now, if post multiplied by $A^T$ in $A=U \Sigma V^T$, we get,

$AA^T = (U \Sigma V^T)(U \Sigma V^T)^T$

$AA^T = (U \Sigma (V^T)(V \Sigma U^T)$

$AA^T = U \Sigma (V^TV) \Sigma^T U^T$

Since, $V^T=V^{-1}$ and $V^{-1}V=I$

We get,

$AA^T=U \Sigma \Sigma^T U^T$

Since, $U^T=U^{-1}$, we get the eigen decomposition equation as:

$AA^T=U \Lambda U^{-1}$

Where, $\Lambda = \Sigma \Sigma^{T}= diag(\sigma_1^2,\sigma_2^2,...)$

So, 

$\sigma^2= eigen(AA^T)=eigen(A^TA)$

The reason is that $AA^T$ and $A^TA$ have the same non-zero eigen values.

$\textbf{Proof}$

$AA^Ty=\lambda y$

$A^TAA^Ty=\lambda A^Ty$

$(A^TA)(A^Ty)=\lambda (A^Ty)$

$(A^TA)z=\lambda z$

So, both $AA^T$ and $A^TA$ have the same non-zero eigen values i.e. $\lambda.$ 

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