1 1 vote why is prime->prime dependency doesn't violates 2nf . say table(a,b,c,d,e) and {(a,b),(d,e)} are candidates key and there is a relation from a->d. does it follow functional 2nf rule why? Databases database-normalization databases decomposition + – Akash_Banik 694 views answer comment Share Follow Print See 1 comment 1 1 comment reply Shaik Masthan commented Oct 28, 2024 reply Follow flag 2NF removes partial dependency. i.e., if there are no partial dependencies, then it is in 2NF. What is the definition of partial dependency ? That decide whether a -> d voilates 2 NF or not. We just need to stick the definition of partial dependency provided in the standard resources. 1 1 replyShare Please log in or register to add a comment.
0 0 votes See violation of 2NF happens when Some CK partially (particular partial dependency) dertimines a NON PRIME ATTRIBUTES.2NF only concerns non-prime attributes. It aims to remove partial dependencies of non-prime attributes on candidate keys. Simple, if there is no non prime attributes , then it's in 2NF.A-->D santhu7 answered Nov 20, 2024 santhu7 comment Share Follow 0 reply Please log in or register to add a comment.