1 1 vote Lets say we have a 32bit instruction using immediate addressing mode, where the opcode is say 22bits, and u have to store a 32bit operand inside the remaining 10bits of the instruction. How would u do it? CO & Architecture interview iitm-interview + – srestha 3.0k views answer comment Share Follow Print See all 24 Comments 24 24 Comments reply Show 21 previous comments Arjun commented Mar 17, 2017 reply Follow flag No, question is fine but there is no way of doing it. 0 0 replyShare srestha commented Mar 18, 2017 reply Follow flag how 32 bit operand be inside 10 bit instruction? 0 0 replyShare utk0203 commented Mar 18, 2017 reply Follow flag @srestha , See , It will stored as part wise first store least significant 8 bits and so on... [ why 8 bits to store operand because rest 2 bits is used to recognize all four different sets of (8bit slot)] In our microcontroller lab, 8086 microproc. , we used to store 3 byte instructions part wise , that led me to answer this . Note: - As Sir said,so this may not be correct . In interview you can try like this they will help you to reach the correct solution . 0 0 replyShare Please log in or register to add a comment.
