0 votes 0 votes https://gateoverflow.in/3573/gate2006-it-34 IN THIS QUESTION I M NOT GETTING HOW (b+)n= bnb∗ what property is this? @iarnav DID U GET THE REASON? eyeamgj asked Oct 22, 2018 eyeamgj 275 views answer comment Share Follow See all 2 Comments See all 2 2 Comments reply MiNiPanda commented Oct 22, 2018 reply Follow Share (b+)n= (bb*)n=(bb*)(bb*)....(bb*)n times = (bbb....bn times) (b*b*b*..b*n times ) [grouping bs and b*s together. Here since the i/p symbol is b only so such grouping can be done] =bn(b*)n=bnb* 0 votes 0 votes eyeamgj commented Oct 22, 2018 reply Follow Share OK THANK U SO MUCH 0 votes 0 votes Please log in or register to add a comment.