48 48 votes A paging scheme uses a Translation Look-aside Buffer (TLB). A TLB-access takes $10$ ns and the main memory access takes $50$ ns. What is the effective access time(in ns) if the TLB hit ratio is $\text{90\%}$ and there is no page-fault?$54$$60$$65$$75$ Operating System gateit-2008 operating-system virtual-memory normal + – Ishrat Jahan 20.7k views answer comment Share Follow Print See all 7 Comments 7 7 Comments reply `JEET commented Dec 25, 2019 reply Follow flag Good question to keep in short notes. 0 0 replyShare smsubham commented Mar 11, 2020 reply Follow flag We always need to have 1 TLB and 1 MM access (to get frame from MM), when there is miss we need to have 1 extra MM access (to get page table). So EMT = 10 + 50 + 0.1(50) = 55ns 1 1 replyShare Thadymademe commented Oct 10, 2022 reply Follow flag no @smsubham its not like that . if its a hit then you need to access TLB and main memory once but if its a miss then you have already accessed TLB which didnt turn out to be worthy so u need to access main memory twice (once for the page table and second time for the data). 2 2 replyShare Sharadamani_K_N commented Dec 19, 2025 i edited by Sharadamani_K_N Dec 19, 2025 reply Follow flag Option C) 5 5 replyShare Mayank_Pant commented Jan 6 reply Follow flag if there is no page fault then 100% chance of main memory access. That's the main crux of the question otherwise formula putting things. 0 0 replyShare js__ commented Jan 24 reply Follow flag TLB stores address translations only, not data.So even on a hit, you must still go to main memory to fetch data. 0 0 replyShare Navneet_Gulshan commented Aug 30 reply Follow flag So for this question pehle aap agr hit hua too tlb pr jayenga then content ko access ke liye hm jayenge main memory pe or maan lo ki miss ho gaya too fir hm jayenge MM pe but hmko pta kaise lga ki miss hai too for that hm pehle jb tlb pr gaye tb fir mm pe or fir ek baar or mm pe to access the content ye hai scinerio bhaiya or didi logo 0 0 replyShare Please log in or register to add a comment.
Best answer 57 57 votes Effective access time $=$ hit ratio $\times$ time during hit $+$ miss ratio $\times$ time during miss In both cases TLB is accessed and assuming page table is accessed from memory only when TLB misses. $= 0.9 \times (10+50) + 0.1 \times (10 + 50 + 50)$ $= 54 + 11=65$ Correct Answer: $C$ Arjun answered Nov 7, 2014 • edited May 22, 2019 by Naveen Kumar 3 Arjun comment Share Follow See all 5 Comments 5 5 Comments reply Show 2 previous comments ritiksri8 commented Jan 28, 2025 reply Follow flag to access page table and content 0 0 replyShare panipuri commented Jan 29 reply Follow flag @Rackson$1^{st}\ 50ns$ to access page table$2^{nd} 50ns$ to access actual page present in frame 0 0 replyShare saismrutiranjan18 commented Aug 23 reply Follow flag because one for page table access and another is for main memory access 0 0 replyShare Please log in or register to add a comment.
11 11 votes Answer is (C) Part. Just one more approach --> $Effective Access Time = Address Translation Time + Main Memory Access Time$ = $10 + 0.1(50) + Main Memory Access Time = 15 + 50 = 65ns$ Chhotu answered Dec 5, 2017 Chhotu comment Share Follow See 1 comment 1 1 comment reply rahul sharma 5 commented Dec 11, 2017 reply Follow flag Nice font:) 1 1 replyShare Please log in or register to add a comment.
4 4 votes $EAT\Rightarrow 0.9\times (10+50)+0.1(10+50+50)=54+11=65$ KUSHAGRA गुप्ता answered May 28, 2020 KUSHAGRA गुप्ता comment Share Follow 0 reply Please log in or register to add a comment.
2 2 votes answer :- (c) 65 reason- Given : TLB access time = 10 ns main memory access time = 50 ns TLB hit ratio= 90% i.e (0.9) now we first need to find miss ratio that is [1- TLB hit ratio] miss ratio= 1- 0.9= 0.1 now calculating the effective access time by formula, hit ratio X (TLB access time + memory access time) + miss ratio X (TLB access ratio + 2 X memory access ratio) = 0.9X(10 ns + 50 ns)+ 0.1 X (10 ns + (2 X 50 ns)) =0.9 X 60 ns + 0.1 X 110ns =54 ns + 11 ns =65 ns manoj kanwar answered Jun 17, 2020 • edited Jun 17, 2020 by manoj kanwar manoj kanwar comment Share Follow 0 reply Please log in or register to add a comment.
–3 –3 votes "there is no page-fault" means we should just put 10ns + 50ns =60 ns Dhananjay answered Dec 10, 2014 • reshown Jan 4, 2016 by Akash Kanase Dhananjay comment Share Follow See all 6 Comments 6 6 Comments reply Show 3 previous comments Arpit Dhuriya commented Dec 12, 2014 reply Follow flag thank you sir It clears alot. 1 1 replyShare prayas commented Nov 28, 2017 reply Follow flag By default we've to assume 1 level paging? 0 0 replyShare Lakshman Bhaiya commented Dec 25, 2018 reply Follow flag Yes, if nothing is talking about the number of paging level than, we can take 1 level paging. 0 0 replyShare Please log in or register to add a comment.