70 70 votes Consider the following two finite automata. $M_1$ accepts $L_1$ and $M_2$ accepts $L_2$.$M_1$$M_2$ Which one of the following is TRUE?$L_1 = L_2$$L_1 \subset L_2$$L_1 \cap L_{2}^{C} = \varnothing $$L_1 \cup L_2 \neq L_1$ Theory of Computation gateit-2008 theory-of-computation finite-automata normal + – Ishrat Jahan 23.8k views answer comment Share Follow Print See all 5 Comments 5 5 Comments reply Show 2 previous comments Aditya 6 commented May 10, 2025 reply Follow flag So is the answer for this question only A or A,C? 0 0 replyShare ISHAN KUMRA commented Jan 25 reply Follow flag what's the actual version? some versions have is/are True , one of the following true , option C as L1 ∩ L2 0 0 replyShare Raj_Dev_Verma commented Sep 26 reply Follow flag L(1) = (0+10)*11(1+0)* L(2) = (0+1)*11(1+0)* Option A,C are correct 0 0 replyShare Please log in or register to add a comment.
Best answer 74 74 votes $L_1: (0 + 10)^*11(0 + 1)^* $ $L_2: (0 + 1)^*11(0 + 1)^*$ It is quite clear that $L_1 = L_2$. As both languages $L_1$ and $L_2$ are equal So Complement of Language $L_2$ will be the complement of Language $L_1$ also. For a given language $L, L \cap L^{c} = \emptyset.$ Hence, both options (A) and (C) are correct. Vicky Bajoria answered Dec 30, 2014 • edited Feb 16, 2018 by kenzou Vicky Bajoria comment Share Follow See all 38 Comments 38 38 Comments reply Show 35 previous comments Yash_Nannaware commented Jun 29, 2025 reply Follow flag isnt answer : A,C,D implying that a set is subset of itself ? so L1 is a subset of L2 and vice versa 0 0 replyShare panipuri commented Oct 7, 2025 reply Follow flag doubt arises; only because, we think that as only the prefix of each regex is different are rest part are sameso we start comparing only (0+10)* part of regex of L1 and (0+1)* part of regex of L2, Individuallyand individually these parts of original regex are indeed proper subset i.e, (0+10)* is proper subset of (0+1)* : so we start thinking option B is correct you can conclude L1 = L2 iff, you compare the whole regex; much easier way is to notice that m2 is nfa and making dfa for m2 mfa(m1) = mfa(m2) so L1 = L2 1 1 replyShare Hardik Kumawat commented Jun 22 reply Follow flag @RahulVerma3(0+10)* and (1+0)* are not at all equivalent.They only become equivalent in the context of the entire expression.In L1, if there is any 0* or any (10)* or any mixture of 0 and 10, it can easily be handled by (0 + 10)*, but if there is a 11, we can consider that to be handled by the compulsary substring 11 and the remaining portion of the string can be handled by the (a + b)* which comes after it. 0 0 replyShare Please log in or register to add a comment.
4 4 votes Both the machines looks to be accepting the same language . M1 is a DFA and M2 is a NFA . So simply for verification convert NFA ( M2 ) to DFA and perform state reduction operation on DFA to get minimal DFA . We can see that the result is machine ( M1 ) . For those who don't wish to play much with regular expressions can use this technique. vatsan answered Aug 29, 2017 vatsan comment Share Follow See 1 comment 1 1 comment reply looser commented Jan 2 reply Follow flag Can you please share the solution if possible? 0 0 replyShare Please log in or register to add a comment.
2 2 votes Answer: A. option c) cannot be right as complement concept is only applicable for DFA. swagat answered Sep 2, 2019 swagat comment Share Follow See all 2 Comments 2 2 Comments reply ayushsomani commented Dec 4, 2019 reply Follow flag @swagat We are not applying Complement on NFA. We are applying complement on the Language (i.e. $L_{2}$) accepted by given NFA. Therefore, A and C are Correct. 5 5 replyShare Obito commented Jun 14, 2025 reply Follow flag bro first convert in to dfa then apply complement concept ! 0 0 replyShare Please log in or register to add a comment.
2 2 votes For those who have not idea how to convert NFA to DFA ꧁༒☬ĿọŗԀ 🆂🅷🅸🆅🅰☬༒꧂ answered Oct 20, 2023 ꧁༒☬ĿọŗԀ 🆂🅷🅸🆅🅰☬༒꧂ comment Share Follow See 1 comment 1 1 comment reply Krishna Reddy kyp commented Oct 6, 2024 reply Follow flag Isn't your NFA to DFA conversion wrong(Second Diagram)? Coz q0q1(1)->q0q1 q0q1(0)->q0 But you missed those transitions. In the final diagram,you forgot to put loop on q2. 0 0 replyShare Please log in or register to add a comment.
1 1 vote M2 is NFA. If M2 is converted to DFA, it will become exactly same as M1. Hence L1 and L2 are same set of languages. Thus option A and C are correct rish1602 answered Jun 15, 2021 rish1602 comment Share Follow 0 reply Please log in or register to add a comment.
0 0 votes In this L1 = (0+10)* 11(0+1)* L2 = (0=1)* 11(0+1)* Both L1 and L2 are equal. Option A is correct. → L1 ∩ L2‘ = L1 ∩ L1‘ = ∅ (option C also correct) varunrajarathnam answered Aug 23, 2020 varunrajarathnam comment Share Follow 0 reply Please log in or register to add a comment.