70 70 votes Consider the following two finite automata. $M_1$ accepts $L_1$ and $M_2$ accepts $L_2$.$M_1$$M_2$ Which one of the following is TRUE?$L_1 = L_2$$L_1 \subset L_2$$L_1 \cap L_{2}^{C} = \varnothing $$L_1 \cup L_2 \neq L_1$ Theory of Computation gateit-2008 theory-of-computation finite-automata normal + – Ishrat Jahan 23.3k views answer comment Share Follow Print See all 5 Comments 5 5 Comments reply Show 2 previous comments Aditya 6 commented May 10, 2025 reply Follow flag So is the answer for this question only A or A,C? 0 0 replyShare ISHAN KUMRA commented Jan 25 reply Follow flag what's the actual version? some versions have is/are True , one of the following true , option C as L1 ∩ L2 0 0 replyShare Raj_Dev_Verma commented Sep 26 reply Follow flag L(1) = (0+10)*11(1+0)* L(2) = (0+1)*11(1+0)* Option A,C are correct 0 0 replyShare Please log in or register to add a comment.
Best answer 73 73 votes $L_1: (0 + 10)^*11(0 + 1)^* $ $L_2: (0 + 1)^*11(0 + 1)^*$ It is quite clear that $L_1 = L_2$. As both languages $L_1$ and $L_2$ are equal So Complement of Language $L_2$ will be the complement of Language $L_1$ also. For a given language $L, L \cap L^{c} = \emptyset.$ Hence, both options (A) and (C) are correct. Vicky Bajoria answered Dec 30, 2014 • edited Feb 16, 2018 by kenzou Vicky Bajoria comment Share Follow See all 38 Comments 38 38 Comments reply Praveen Saini commented Mar 3, 2015 reply Follow flag Even though everything is correct , L1= L2 , as M1 is DFA of NFA M2 but I am getting L1= (0+10)*11(0+1)* using Arden's theorem. How did you calculate L1 ? 6 6 replyShare Vicky Bajoria commented Mar 3, 2015 reply Follow flag Hi Pravin, that was a mistake. I have edited it. 0 0 replyShare Gate Mm commented Nov 10, 2015 reply Follow flag isn't it l1 subset l2? 2 2 replyShare Praveen Saini commented Nov 11, 2015 reply Follow flag L1=L2 , L1 is subset of L2 and L2 is subset of L1. 2 2 replyShare Shreya Roy commented Jul 24, 2016 reply Follow flag Sir, how did you find this? 0 0 replyShare kumar_sanjay commented Oct 1, 2016 reply Follow flag first convert m2 to dfa , which has 4 staes & when minimizing that dfa you will get m1. therefore l1=l2; 4 4 replyShare Hradesh patel commented Oct 1, 2016 reply Follow flag thks 0 0 replyShare KISHALAY DAS commented Jan 3, 2017 reply Follow flag IF L1=L2 then option c L1 ∩ L2' = ∅ is also correct..so both A and C correct 18 18 replyShare gate-17 commented Jan 7, 2017 reply Follow flag Please anybody provide the solution of L1 by Arden's theorem Thanks 0 0 replyShare iarnav commented Aug 20, 2017 reply Follow flag @Praveen Saini @kumar_sanjay Sir, if R.E are L1: (0 + 10)*11(0 + 1)* L2: (0 + 1)*11(0 + 1)* then people got L1=L2, but from L1 we can generate 1011, but how to generate string 1011 from L2? Then how can L1=L2 ?! 0 0 replyShare Praveen Saini commented Aug 20, 2017 reply Follow flag $\underbrace{(0+1)^*}_{10}\underbrace{11}_{11}\underbrace{(0+1)^*}_{\epsilon}$ 7 7 replyShare iarnav commented Aug 21, 2017 reply Follow flag @ Praveen Saini You're the best, Sir! 0 0 replyShare vatsan commented Aug 28, 2017 reply Follow flag Why can't the first DFA be interpreted as " if the string contains atleast 2 1's then accept" ? Interpreting like this will make option c as correct answer ie atleast 2 1's intersect complement(exactly 2 1's) is NULL 0 0 replyShare Praveen Saini commented Aug 28, 2017 reply Follow flag 1) First DFA is not for at least 2 1's 2) atleast 2 1's intersect complement(exactly 2 1's) is not NULL 0 0 replyShare vatsan commented Aug 29, 2017 reply Follow flag yeah got it . Misinterpreted it earlier . 0 0 replyShare Chhotu commented Nov 21, 2017 reply Follow flag Hi @Praveen Saini ji, L1=L2 , L1 is subset of L2 and L2 is subset of L1. Correct. But how can we prove above mentioned statement ? 0 0 replyShare Praveen Saini commented Nov 24, 2017 reply Follow flag you can find the minimized DFA for M1 and M2. if you get the same then L1 = L2 5 5 replyShare Chhotu commented Nov 24, 2017 reply Follow flag Hi @Praveen Saini ji Thank You. you can find the minimized DFA for M1 and M2. if you get the same then L1 = L2 Can not we obtain two different minimized DFA for same L ? If Yes the $M_{1}$ XOR $M_{2}$ == $\phi$ may help. One more thing is there any other more faster way to do this. 1 1 replyShare Praveen Saini commented Nov 25, 2017 reply Follow flag No, if L1 = L2, then Minimized DFA will be same. if you do not want to do the minimization of DFA's. Then you can find cross product of two DFA, if we always get final states together in cross product, then L1= L2 4 4 replyShare Puja Mishra commented Jan 14, 2018 reply Follow flag @praveen sir rather than taking arbitrary length string ... if we take fixed Length 3 bit string and its all possibilities ... and then we compare the options ... is it a correct approach ?? 0 0 replyShare rio commented Apr 9, 2018 reply Follow flag @praveen sir how to find cross product and check it can u plzz explain ?? 0 0 replyShare Cristine commented Aug 7, 2018 reply Follow flag Can someone provide steps by applying Arden's theorem in this question? 0 0 replyShare Shamim Ahmed commented Oct 22, 2018 reply Follow flag Converting the NFA to DFA, then minimizing it.. is a cumbersome process. Isn't there any shortcut? Please help.. 0 0 replyShare Verma Ashish commented Oct 22, 2018 reply Follow flag There is no shortcut for nfa to dfa conversion But if you somehow get regular expression or language generated by nfa then you can draw corresponding dfa.. 0 0 replyShare Gaganjot _Kaur commented Dec 27, 2019 reply Follow flag @Praveen Saini Sir, I am having difficulty understanding how Regular expressions for L1 and L2 are equivalent. Particularly the part (0+10)* and (0+1)*. My actual doubt is , suppose R.E1= (0+10)* and R.E2 = (0+1)* , are they equal in this case too? No, right? 0 0 replyShare vijay kumar 2 commented Jan 8, 2020 reply Follow flag yes i am too confused in this part so at first i thought that L1 is subset of L2 please help in this. 0 0 replyShare vijay kumar 2 commented Jan 8, 2020 reply Follow flag because how can we get 01111 in (0+10)* and it is possible in (0+1)* 1 1 replyShare avraw commented May 2, 2020 reply Follow flag @gaganjot My thoughts exactly. Shouldn't the right answer be B in this case? Since (0+1)* contains (0+10)* as a subset while looking at the regular expression alone? 0 0 replyShare arjungangwar commented Jun 12, 2020 i edited by arjungangwar Jul 8, 2020 reply Follow flag @gaganjot (0+1)* and (0+10)* are not the same. If you think about it, (0+10)* does not produce strings ending in 1 whereas (0+1)* can. But, When you see the entire regular express as a whole both gives out the same language. 3 3 replyShare Abhineet Singh commented Dec 12, 2020 reply Follow flag why are we focussing on the regular expression for the given FAs, I think it is easier to interpret what they are doing. In this case both are accepting any string that contain 11 as a substring. Correct me if I’m wrong 1 1 replyShare Ajitgate21 commented Oct 16, 2022 reply Follow flag Ans A is wrong, Because L1 generate 1011 string but L2 can’t generate 1011. 0 0 replyShare Abhrajyoti00 commented Oct 16, 2022 reply Follow flag @Ajitgate21 M2 also can generate L2 (1011). Follow these states for L2 : $AABC$ Recheck once more. 0 0 replyShare Ajitgate21 commented Oct 17, 2022 reply Follow flag @Abhrajyoti00 Thank you for reply 1 1 replyShare NarutoUzumaki commented Jan 5, 2024 reply Follow flag wheather (0+1)* = (0+10)* ? because if they both are equal then only you can say that both L1 and L2 are equal . 1 1 replyShare RahulVerma3 commented Oct 30, 2024 reply Follow flag I got the answer by converting the M2 into minmized DFA but how did you say that $(0 + 10)^*$ and $(1+0)^*$ i didn't get it? 0 0 replyShare Yash_Nannaware commented Jun 29, 2025 reply Follow flag isnt answer : A,C,D implying that a set is subset of itself ? so L1 is a subset of L2 and vice versa 0 0 replyShare panipuri commented Oct 7, 2025 reply Follow flag doubt arises; only because, we think that as only the prefix of each regex is different are rest part are sameso we start comparing only (0+10)* part of regex of L1 and (0+1)* part of regex of L2, Individuallyand individually these parts of original regex are indeed proper subset i.e, (0+10)* is proper subset of (0+1)* : so we start thinking option B is correct you can conclude L1 = L2 iff, you compare the whole regex; much easier way is to notice that m2 is nfa and making dfa for m2 mfa(m1) = mfa(m2) so L1 = L2 1 1 replyShare Hardik Kumawat commented Jun 22 reply Follow flag @RahulVerma3(0+10)* and (1+0)* are not at all equivalent.They only become equivalent in the context of the entire expression.In L1, if there is any 0* or any (10)* or any mixture of 0 and 10, it can easily be handled by (0 + 10)*, but if there is a 11, we can consider that to be handled by the compulsary substring 11 and the remaining portion of the string can be handled by the (a + b)* which comes after it. 0 0 replyShare Please log in or register to add a comment.
4 4 votes Both the machines looks to be accepting the same language . M1 is a DFA and M2 is a NFA . So simply for verification convert NFA ( M2 ) to DFA and perform state reduction operation on DFA to get minimal DFA . We can see that the result is machine ( M1 ) . For those who don't wish to play much with regular expressions can use this technique. vatsan answered Aug 29, 2017 vatsan comment Share Follow See 1 comment 1 1 comment reply looser commented Jan 2 reply Follow flag Can you please share the solution if possible? 0 0 replyShare Please log in or register to add a comment.
2 2 votes Answer: A. option c) cannot be right as complement concept is only applicable for DFA. swagat answered Sep 2, 2019 swagat comment Share Follow See all 2 Comments 2 2 Comments reply ayushsomani commented Dec 4, 2019 reply Follow flag @swagat We are not applying Complement on NFA. We are applying complement on the Language (i.e. $L_{2}$) accepted by given NFA. Therefore, A and C are Correct. 5 5 replyShare Obito commented Jun 14, 2025 reply Follow flag bro first convert in to dfa then apply complement concept ! 0 0 replyShare Please log in or register to add a comment.
2 2 votes For those who have not idea how to convert NFA to DFA ꧁༒☬ĿọŗԀ 🆂🅷🅸🆅🅰☬༒꧂ answered Oct 20, 2023 ꧁༒☬ĿọŗԀ 🆂🅷🅸🆅🅰☬༒꧂ comment Share Follow See 1 comment 1 1 comment reply Krishna Reddy kyp commented Oct 6, 2024 reply Follow flag Isn't your NFA to DFA conversion wrong(Second Diagram)? Coz q0q1(1)->q0q1 q0q1(0)->q0 But you missed those transitions. In the final diagram,you forgot to put loop on q2. 0 0 replyShare Please log in or register to add a comment.
1 1 vote M2 is NFA. If M2 is converted to DFA, it will become exactly same as M1. Hence L1 and L2 are same set of languages. Thus option A and C are correct rish1602 answered Jun 15, 2021 rish1602 comment Share Follow 0 reply Please log in or register to add a comment.
0 0 votes In this L1 = (0+10)* 11(0+1)* L2 = (0=1)* 11(0+1)* Both L1 and L2 are equal. Option A is correct. → L1 ∩ L2‘ = L1 ∩ L1‘ = ∅ (option C also correct) varunrajarathnam answered Aug 23, 2020 varunrajarathnam comment Share Follow 0 reply Please log in or register to add a comment.