0 votes 0 votes Let $f(x-y)=\frac{f(x)}{f(y)}$ for all $x, y \in \mathbb{R}$ and $f^{\prime}(0)=p, f^{\prime}(5)=q$. Then the value of $f^{\prime}(-5)$ is $q$ $-q$ $\frac{p}{q}$ $\frac{p^{2}}{q}$ Others isi2021-mma + – admin asked Jul 23, 2022 • edited Aug 7, 2022 by Lakshman Bhaiya admin 314 views answer comment Share Follow See all 0 reply Please log in or register to add a comment.