1,681 views

3 Answers

Best answer
2 2 votes
Given that L1 $\leqslant$ L2 (L1 Reduciable L2)

It means L2 is atleast harder problem as L1.

And Here Given that L1 is Recursive Enumerable.

So, L2 Must be either Recursive Enumerable Language or Non-Recursive Enumerable Language.
selected by
2 2 votes
L1 reducible to L2

It refers

(L2 is decidable) ==> L1 is decidable

Again

L1 is Undecidable then L2 is Undecidable(Contrapositive form)

Again

L2 is REL ==>L1 is REL

again

L1 is non REL ==> L2 is non REL
0 0 votes
we cant say anything about L2.
Position:
Show:

Related questions

2 2 votes
1 1 answer
260
260 views
GO Classes asked Nov 13, 2025
260 views
CONSIDER TWO PROBLEMS: $L_1$ IS A DECIDABLE LANGUAGE, AND $L_2$ IS A RECURSIVELY ENUMERABLE (R.E.) BUT NOT DECIDABLE LANGUAGE. LET $L_3$ BE ANOTHER LANGUAGE.WHICH ONE OF ...
2 2 votes
1 1 answer
689
689 views
iarnav asked Sep 6, 2021
689 views
Please help me understand this question. I have searched on internet, but not avail. Click this to see the question
1 1 vote
1 1 answer
804
804 views
Lovejeet Singh asked Oct 30, 2018
804 views
Consider 2 problems X & Y. Now if X is reducible to Y.What does this mean.please explain with an example.
1 1 vote
1 1 answer
1.6k
1.6k views
sunaina rawat asked Oct 2, 2017
1,551 views
Why this is incorrect? For any two languages A and B, if A ⊆ B, then A is reducible to B.