• reopened by
1,200 views
0 0 votes
An umambiguous grammar has same right most and left most derivation>??

True or false.?

2 Answers

0 0 votes
If any grammar has more than 1 LMD or more than 1 RMD or more than 1 parse tree that will be an ambiuous grammar.SO if grammar is unabiguous it must have only 1 LMD or 1RMD or 1 parse tree.

So here every umbiguous grammar has only 1 LMD and 1 RMD means both must be equal because if it is not it will be ambiguous.

 TRUE
0 0 votes
ambiguous means only one parse tree so it means  that left recursive most derivative and right most derivation will be same
Position:
Show:

Related questions

10 10 votes
2 answers 2 answers
4.6k
4.6k views
Lucky sunda asked Jan 20, 2017
4,593 views
1. If a grammar is LL(1), then it has to be LALR(1).Is it correct??2. Is there anything called as LL(0)??3. Do every DCFL has LL(1) grammar??4. Do every DCFL has LR(1) gr...
1 1 vote
0 0 answers
183
183 views
Tin_ku asked Aug 2
183 views
We know that the class of languages of LR(0), SLR(1), LALR(1), CLR(1) is the class of DCFLs, with the only exception being that...An LR(0) language is a DCFL that has the...