0 votes 0 votes akash.dinkar12 asked Dec 2, 2017 akash.dinkar12 547 views answer comment Share Follow See all 11 Comments See all 11 11 Comments reply Show 8 previous comments Anu007 commented Dec 2, 2017 reply Follow Share E(x2)= $1^{2}\times (\frac{1}{2})+ 1^{2}\times (\frac{1}{2^{2}})+1^{2}\times (\frac{1}{2^{3}})$ 1 votes 1 votes joshi_nitish commented Dec 2, 2017 reply Follow Share @akash here x2 can also take 2 values i.e 0 or 1, now, probability to get x2=1, means probability of getting x=1, therfore E(x2)= 1*P(x=1) 1 votes 1 votes joshi_nitish commented Dec 2, 2017 reply Follow Share @Anu sir, yes exactly. 1 votes 1 votes Please log in or register to add a comment.