75 75 votes Consider the following statements: P: Good mobile phones are not cheap Q: Cheap mobile phones are not good L: P implies Q M: Q implies P N: P is equivalent to Q Which one of the following about L, M, and N is CORRECT? Only L is TRUE. Only M is TRUE. Only N is TRUE. L, M and N are TRUE. Mathematical Logic gatecse-2014-set3 mathematical-logic easy propositional-logic + – go_editor 17.9k views answer comment Share Follow Print See all 2 Comments 2 2 Comments reply Hazard commented Nov 4, 2025 reply Follow flag If N is true then it make L and M both true. 0 0 replyShare Raj_Dev_Verma commented Jul 12 reply Follow flag let A = good mobile phones B = cheap mobiles phones P = A imples not B Q = B imples not A So, Option D is correct 0 0 replyShare Please log in or register to add a comment.
Best answer 106 106 votes Correct Answer (D) Lets break the given compound statements into atomic statements. A : Good mobile phones. B : Cheap mobile phones. $P :(A\to \neg B) \iff (\neg A\vee \neg B)$ $Q :(B\to \neg A) \iff \big((\neg B\vee \neg A) \iff \neg A\vee \neg B)\big)$ (Disjunction is commutative), Hence, $(P\iff Q)$ which means $(P\to Q)$ and $(Q \to P).$ Srinath Jayachandran answered Oct 13, 2014 • edited Nov 23, 2017 by pavan singh Srinath Jayachandran comment Share Follow See all 14 Comments 14 14 Comments reply Show 11 previous comments Deepak Poonia commented Jul 12, 2022 reply Follow flag @samarpita Yes, we can do this way. 1 1 replyShare Rajsukh Mohanty commented Oct 15, 2023 reply Follow flag @KUSHAGRA गुप्ता and @Hradesh patel along with the reading provided by @subbus, you can also practice these two imp. examples (Examples 26 & 27) in Section-1.4.12 titled, “Examples from Lewis Carroll”, Rosen 8th Ed. These will be helpful for understanding the use implications in such statements. 0 0 replyShare amansachan9795 commented Apr 4, 2024 reply Follow flag very nice explanation 0 0 replyShare Please log in or register to add a comment.
17 17 votes P and Q are contra-positives to each other. A proposition and its contra-positive are always equivalent. Equivalent and <--> are same, so p <--> q holds. So option D) Vicky rix answered Mar 31, 2017 Vicky rix comment Share Follow See all 2 Comments 2 2 Comments reply ayush palak commented Jun 27, 2017 reply Follow flag can you please explain me the line "P is equivalent to Q, which means P implies Q ,and Q implies P" . P implies Q means P->Q and Q implies P means Q->P then how can we conclude these two from the fact that P is equivalent to Q. 0 0 replyShare Shweta Nair commented Oct 28, 2017 reply Follow flag P is equivalent to Q means (P->Q)^(Q->P). So both (P->Q) and (Q->P) must be true to ensure this. 2 2 replyShare Please log in or register to add a comment.
6 6 votes Here given statements P, Q are implicitly universally quantified statements we can express P,Q statements using quantifiers as shown below $\therefore $ Answer is option D subbus answered Apr 12, 2021 subbus comment Share Follow 0 reply Please log in or register to add a comment.
4 4 votes 😊😊😊😊😊😊😊😊😊😊😊😊😊😊😊😊😊😊😊😊😊😊 akshay_123 answered Sep 13, 2023 akshay_123 comment Share Follow 0 reply Please log in or register to add a comment.
2 2 votes P: Good mobile phones are not cheap (False: some good mobile phones are cheap) Q: Cheap mobiles are not good ( False: some cheap phones are also good) L: P→Q : False → False : True M: Q→P: False → False: True N: P=Q: True Hence L,M,N are True ans is (D) Please correct me if my approach is wrong. sohailkhan answered Aug 15, 2019 sohailkhan comment Share Follow 0 reply Please log in or register to add a comment.