1 1 vote Let X and Y are two random variables with E(X)=10,E(Y)=20 and Var(X)=25,Var(Y)=36 and E(X.Y)=225. Now consider Z=aX-bY+1. Find a and b when E(Z)=1 and Var(Z)=1. Probability engineering-mathematics variance expectation + – Shubhgupta 2.1k views answer comment Share Follow Print See all 8 Comments 8 8 Comments reply ank73811 commented Jan 2, 2019 reply Follow flag Is it a=1/4 and b=1/8? 0 0 replyShare Shubhgupta commented Jan 2, 2019 reply Follow flag don't know the answer. but share your approach brother i am getting a=$\pm1/3$ and b= $\pm1/6$? 0 0 replyShare ank73811 commented Jan 2, 2019 reply Follow flag E(Z) = aE(X) - bE(Y) + 1 V(Z) = a^2 V(X) - b^2 V(Y). I used these 2 equation to solve 0 0 replyShare MiNiPanda commented Jan 2, 2019 reply Follow flag @ank73811 I think your Var equation is not right. $Var(aX-bY)=a^2Var(X)+b^2Var(Y)-2abCov(X,Y)$ $Cov(X,Y)=E(XY)-E(X)E(Y)$ when X and Y are not independent. $Cov(X,Y)=0$ if X and Y are independent. 0 0 replyShare Shubhgupta commented Jan 2, 2019 reply Follow flag @MiNiPanda, Please confirm in question this should be mentioned that whether random variables are independent or not? Right. 0 0 replyShare MiNiPanda commented Jan 2, 2019 reply Follow flag @Shubhgupta We can make that out from the given data because if they are independent then Cov(X,Y)=E(XY)-E(X)E(Y) would be 0 but it is 225-200=25 instead which indicates that they are not independent.. Also wanted to know whether V(aX-bY+1) can be written like Var(aX-bY)+Var(1) or not [Var(const)=0] 1 1 replyShare Shubhgupta commented Jan 2, 2019 reply Follow flag Ok yes should be not independent in this case. Var(aX-bY)+Var(1) or not [Var(const)=0] I think yes we can write in this form because variance of constant is 0. 1 1 replyShare MiNiPanda commented Jan 2, 2019 reply Follow flag @Shubhgupta Yes I checked it https://revisionmaths.com/advanced-level-maths-revision/statistics/expectation-and-variance Thanks :) 0 0 replyShare Please log in or register to add a comment.