The Gateway to Computer Science Excellence
0 votes
12 views

$\displaystyle{}\underset{n \to \infty}{\lim} \frac{1}{n} \bigg( \frac{n}{n+1} + \frac{n}{n+2} + \cdots + \frac{n}{2n} \bigg)$ is equal to

  1. $\infty$
  2. $0$
  3. $\log_e 2$
  4. $1$
in Calculus by Veteran (425k points)
recategorized by | 12 views
0
Is $0$ is the answer?

Please log in or register to answer this question.

Quick search syntax
tags tag:apple
author user:martin
title title:apple
content content:apple
exclude -tag:apple
force match +apple
views views:100
score score:10
answers answers:2
is accepted isaccepted:true
is closed isclosed:true
50,644 questions
56,503 answers
195,553 comments
101,035 users