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ISI2015-MMA-26

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$\displaystyle{}\underset{n \to \infty}{\lim} \frac{1}{n} \bigg( \frac{n}{n+1} + \frac{n}{n+2} + \cdots + \frac{n}{2n} \bigg)$ is equal to

$\infty$
$0$
$\log_e 2$
$1$

isi2015-mma
calculus
limits
non-gate

asked Sep 23 in Calculus by Arjun Veteran (425k points)
recategorized Nov 16 by Lakshman Patel RJIT | 12 views

0

Is $0$ is the answer?

commented Sep 24 by `JEET Boss (13.4k points)

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