0 votes 0 votes True/False Question : Let $f$ be a nonnegative continuous function on $\mathbb{R}$ such that $\int_{0}^{\infty }f\left ( t \right )dt$ is finite. Then $\underset{x\rightarrow \infty }{lim}\:f\left ( x \right )=0.$ TIFR tifrmaths2018 true-false + – soujanyareddy13 asked Aug 29, 2020 • edited Oct 17, 2020 by soujanyareddy13 soujanyareddy13 169 views answer comment Share Follow See all 0 reply Please log in or register to add a comment.